What extensive measure did world Jewry undertake
against Germany as early as 1933?
10. What extensive measure did world Jewry undertake against
Germany as early as 1933?
The IHR says:
An international boycott of German goods.
The Samisdat version says:
On March 24, 1933, International Jewry declared war against Germany
and ordered a world-wide boycott of German goods simply because the
German government had removed Jews from influential positions and
transferred power back to the German people. The boycott order
and the Jewish "war" against Germany were reported in world
media and broadcast everywhere. Phony stories of German "death
camps" circulated before WWII. The Germans, as a result, had every
right to lock up Jews, as prisoners of war, wherever and whenever they
were found between 1933-45!
Nizkor replies:
This boycott happens to be the exact same thing referred to in the
next question, except there it's referred to
as "declaring war on Germany."
Why did the IHR describe this single action twice with different
words? Something fishy is going on here.
The boycott of German goods was undertaken in response to various
Nazi atrocities, including a planned Nazi boycott of Jewish goods and
services.
But the IHR just conveniently "forgot" to mention this.
Note the blatant antisemitism in the Samisdat
(Ernst Zündel)
version. Never mind the gas chambers and the extermination effort,
never mind that six million died. Just ask yourself if the Nazis had
"every right" to send Jewish infants to camps with little
food, no sanitation, and rampant typhus epidemics, where they died like
flies? Were those Jewish babies "prisoners of war"?
Even "revisionists" must admit that this slaughter
occurred. The Holocaust-denier
David Irving
describes a 1944
Himmler
speech (Skeptic magazine, Vol. 2, No. 4, p. 50):
"If people ask me," said Himmler, "why did you have to
kill the children too, then I can only say I am not such a coward that I
leave for my children something I can do myself." ... I agree,
Himmler said that. He actually said "We're wiping out the Jews.
We're murdering them. We're killing them." ... He is talking
about solving the Jewish problem, about having to kill off women and
children too.
Did a newspaper story in 1933 give the Nazis "every right"
to do this?
(Irving claims in that interview that because Himmler had not
mentioned specifically how many Jews were being killed, that therefore
it is not evidence for the Holocaust.)
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