The "Day of the Lord"
Read 1 Thess. 5:1-9

Paul continued part two of his answer, regarding the timing of the rapture, in chapter five. He addressed the question of when the rapture and resurrection might come.

1 Thessalonians 5
1 But of the times and the seasons, brethren, ye have no need that I write unto you.
2 For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night.
(KJV)

Notice that Paul was placing the rapture in the "Day of the Lord." In chapter five Paul shifted from describing the events surrounding the rapture to speaking about when the rapture might come. And he referred them again to something they already knew. The "Day of the Lord" was coming as a "thief in the night."

Paul used a phrase that was familiar to these Christians. The "Day of the Lord" is found several times in the Old Testament, always in the context of Christ's coming to destroy the enemies of Israel, [see: Isa. 13:6-13, Joel 3:9-17, Zech. 14]. This is exactly what Revelation 19 records as the "battle of Armageddon."

The nature of the "Day of the Lord" is crucial to understanding this passage. Pre-tribulationists claim the "Day of the Lord" includes the alleged pre-trib rapture and the entire tribulation. This allows them to reconcile 1 Thessalonians 5 with pre-tribulationism, since Paul instructed believers to be watching for the "Day of the Lord," [1 Thess. 5:1-6]. If the "Day of the Lord" comes after the tribulation, as every Old Testament occurrence seems to indicate, then Christians must still be here at the end of the tribulation in order to watch for that day.

Much has been written by pre-tribulationists trying to make a linkage between the tribulation and "Day of the Lord." Comparisons of similar themes, such as wrath, judgment, etc. have been offered as evidence that the two are the same. Yet, even with all the verbosity on this topic, it has not been demonstrated that there is any biblical reason to suppose that the "Day of the Lord" includes the tribulation. None of the Old Testament passages support this conclusion. It comes only from a preconceived assumption of a pre-trib rapture superimposed on the Thessalonian passage. In fact, there are definite biblical passages that, in no uncertain terms, forbid the "Day of the Lord" from overlapping with the tribulation.

First, throughout the Old Testament, a catastrophic sign is associated with the coming of the "Day of the Lord." The darkening of the sun and moon will herald that day. [See: Isaiah 13:9,10, Isaiah 24:19-23, Joel 3:13-15].

Joel 2
31 The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before the great and terrible day of the Lord come.
(KJV)

Matthew 24
29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, ...
(KJV)

These verses establish a clear sequence of events. They place the celestial sign, the darkening of the sun and moon, between the end of the tribulation and the beginning of the "Day of the Lord."

This forbids any overlapping of the tribulation into the "Day of the Lord." They are distinct events. No other interpretation is possible without doing violence to the Word of God. Pre-trib authors have yet to offer a serious reply to this fact.

Secondly, the very first time the "Day of the Lord" is mentioned in the Bible, the text clearly forbids associating it with the tribulation. Isaiah two describes the "Day of the Lord" with the following words:

Isaiah 2
10 Enter into the rock, and hide thee in the dust, for fear of the LORD, and for the glory of his majesty.
11 The lofty looks of man shall be humbled, and the haughtiness of men shall be bowed down, and the LORD alone shall be exalted in that day.
12 For the day of the LORD of hosts shall be upon every one that is proud and lofty, and upon every one that is lifted up; and he shall be brought low:...
17 And the loftiness of man shall be bowed down, and the haughtiness of men shall be made low: and the LORD alone shall be exalted in that day.
18 And the idols he shall utterly abolish.
19 And they shall go into the holes of the rocks, and into the caves of the earth, for fear of the LORD, and for the glory of his majesty, when he ariseth to shake terribly the earth.
(KJV)

Twice these verses indicate that the Lord alone will be exalted in the "Day of the Lord." This is an exclusive statement. No one else can be exalted or worshipped during the "Day of the Lord." Yet, during the tribulation, the Antichrist will be worshipped as God. [See: Rev. 13:3-8,14 & 2 Thess. 2:3,4] And, his image will be worshipped as well. Isaiah's statements about the Lord alone being exalted, and the idols being abolished during the "Day of the Lord," forbid any overlapping with the tribulation and reign of Antichrist.

The celestial sign, and the statements in Isaiah two, clearly forbid stretching the "Day of the Lord" forward to include the tribulation, as pre-tribbers attempt to do. Furthermore, Paul made another clear statement which eliminates the possibility of the "Day of the Lord" including the tribulation.

II Thess 2:1-3
1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

(KJV)

Most translations read "Day of the Lord" in verse 2. There is a variation is the Greek texts here. Some ancient manuscripts read "day of Christ," and others read "day of the Lord." I don't want to get into a debate on which is correct. It really doesn't matter. If "Day of the Lord" is correct, it adds support for the idea that the "Day of the Lord" comes after the tribulation, because events that occur during the tribulation, [the falling away and revelation of Antichrist], are said to come before the "Day of the Lord." If the "Day of Christ" is the correct reading, then this verse alone settles the pre-trib / post-trib debate, since the phrase "Day of Christ" is only used by Paul elsewhere to refer to the rapture of the Church. In this case, Paul is saying that the rapture cannot come until after the Antichrist.

The meaning of the phrase "Day of the Lord" holds the key to the interpretation of Paul's instructions to believers in 1 Thessalonians. The meaning of 1 Thessalonians 4:13 - 5:9 is entirely dependant on the meaning of this phrase. The rapture and the coming of the "Day of the Lord" are clearly connected by Paul in this passage. Notice that Paul clearly instructed Christians to be watching for the coming of the "Day of the Lord." And, as we have just demonstrated, the "Day of the Lord" is after the tribulation. Therefore, Christians must pass through the tribulation in order to watch for the "Day of the Lord."

1 Thess 5:2-6
2 For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night.
3 For when they shall say, Peace and safety; then sudden destruction cometh upon them, as travail upon a woman with child; and they shall not escape.
4 But ye, brethren, are not in darkness, that that day should overtake you as a thief.
5 Ye are all the children of light, and the children of the day: we are not of the night, nor of darkness.
6 Therefore let us not sleep, as do others; but let us watch and be sober.

(KJV)

Since he instructed Christians to watch for the "Day of the Lord," and, as we have seen, that day comes after the tribulation, Paul was simply confirming Jesus' teaching in the Olivet Discourse. There is nothing here to suggest new revelation of a secret pre-trib rapture.

There is also strong evidence Paul directly referred the Thessalonian Christians back to what Jesus said in His Olivet Discourse to answer their question about the timing of the rapture. This can be seen in the statement in verse 2.

1 Thess. 5
2 For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night."
(KJV)

Paul alluded to something they were already familiar with. The idea of Christ's coming as a "thief in the night" was originated by Jesus Himself when describing His coming "immediately after the tribulation," [Matt. 24:42,43]. Paul's reminding them of this leads to the conclusion that he was confirming the chronology Christ gave. More evidence that Paul was referring them to the Olivet Discourse comes from verse 6.

1 Thess. 5
6 Therefore, let us not sleep as do others, but let us watch and be sober.
(KJV)

No doubt, he was referring to Jesus' words in the Olivet Discourse.

Mark 13
35 Watch ye therefore: for ye know not when the master of the house cometh, at even, or at midnight, or at the cockcrowing, or in the morning:
36 Lest coming suddenly he find you sleeping."
(KJV)

Paul then warned against "drunkenness" in verse 7.

1 Thess. 5
7 ...for they that be drunken are drunken in the night.
(KJV)

Again, he was referring them to the Olivet Discourse where Jesus warned;

Luke 21
34 Take heed to yourselves, lest at any time your hearts be overcharged with surfeiting, and drunkenness,... and so that day come upon you unawares,
(KJV)

Paul referred his readers to the Olivet Discourse, which only teaches a post-trib coming of Christ, to answer their questions about the rapture. This is substantial evidence that Paul taught a post-trib rapture. His use of the phrase "Day of the Lord," which other Scriptures place after the tribulation, to describe the rapture, makes it impossible to reconcile this passage with pre-tribulationism, in my opinion.

Go to: "We Rest After the Tribulation"
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